Biotech 1 Chapter 6 Exam
Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library?
a. A genomic library contains both noncoding sequences and coding sequences, whereas a cDNA library contains only coding sequences. b. A genomic library is identical regardless of the cell type used to make it, whereas the content of a cDNA library depends on the cell type used in its construction. c. A genomic library can be made using a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase only, whereas a cDNA library requires both of these as well as reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase. d. Only B and C are correct. e. A, B and C are correct.
2. Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements?
a. centromere b. telomeres c. origin of replication d. both A and B e. A, B, and C
a. Comprehensive Production Development Plan b. Comprehensive Product Development Plan c. Current Product Development Plan d. Current Production Development Plan Use the following information to answer the questions below.
A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease Eco
RI. The gene is added to a mixture containing Eco
RI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for Eco
RI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnight and are streaked on a plate using a technique that produces isolated colonies that are clones of the original. Samples of these colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics.
4. The principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial plasmid, and then
getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that a. bacterial RNA polymerase cannot make RNA complementary to mammalian DNA. b. bacterial DNA is not found in a membrane-bounded nucleus and is therefore incompatible with mammalian DNA. c. bacteria translate polycistronic messages only. d. prokaryotes use a different genetic code from that of eukaryotes. e. bacteria cannot remove eukaryotic introns.
5. Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in
a. all four types of broth. b. the ampicillin broth and the nutrient broth. c. the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth only. d. the nutrient broth, the ampicillin broth, and the tetracycline broth. e. the nutrient broth only.
6. Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?
a. all four broths b. the tetracycline and ampicillin broth c. the nutrient broth and the ampicillin broth d. the nutrient broth and the tetracycline broth e. the nutrient broth
a. a DNA probe used to locate a particular gene in the genome b. an agent, such as a plasmid, used to transfer DNA from an in vitro solution into a living cell
c. an enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments d. the sticky end of a DNA fragment e. the laboratory apparatus used to clone genes
8. The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in
a. recombinant plasmids of bacteria. b. recombinant viral DNA. c. eukaryotic chromosomes. d. both A and B e. A, B, and C
9. Which of the following types of genomes have been sequenced?
a. fungal b. plant c. bacterial d. B and C only e. A, B, and C
a. Investigational New Drug b. Invented New Drug c. Investigational National Drug d. Invented National Drug
____ 11. The completion of the Human Genome Project revealed that the human genome contains fewer genes than
expected, not so many more than simpler organisms. How can this be reconciled with the greater complexity of humans relative to many other organisms? a. RNA transcripts of human genes are more likely to undergo alternative splicing. b. Gene expression patterns in humans are often more complex than those in other organisms. c. Polypeptide domains are combined in a variety of ways. d. Post-translational processing adds diversity to the resulting polypeptides. e. All of the above are correct.
____ 12. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used to amplify DNA from which of the following?
a. fossils b. fetal cells c. viruses d. bacteria e. all of the above
____ 13. The polymerase chain reaction is important because it allows us to
a. insert regulatory sequences into eukaryotic genes. b. make DNA from RNA transcripts. c. insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic plasmids. d. make many copies of a targeted segment of DNA. e. incorporate genes into viruses.
____ 14. Dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination is a method of
a. cloning DNA. b. separating DNA fragments. c. synthesizing DNA. d. sequencing DNA. e. digesting DNA.
____ 15. Yeast cells are frequently used as hosts for cloning because
a. they can remove introns from mRNA. b. they are easy to grow. c. they have plasmids. d. both A and B e. A, B, and C
____ 16. Upon the completion of genome sequencing projects, how do scientists generally go about asking how many
genes there are in the genome and where they are located? a. examining the expression of all potential genes using DNA microchips b. mutating nucleotides throughout the genome and looking for phenotypes c. using RNA interference to pinpoint gene regulatory elements such as enhancers d. using PCR to amplify sequences throughout the genome and looking for gene-like amplification patterns e. using software to scan the genome sequence for gene-related sequence elements such as promoters and transcription start and stop sites
____ 17. Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every
cycle of PCR?
1. The primers hybridize to the target DNA. 2. The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double stranded target DNA. 3. Fresh DNA polymerase is added. 4. DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA. a. 3, 4, 2 b. 1, 3, 2, 4 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 2, 1, 4 e. 2, 3, 4
____ 18. A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by
using a. DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular polypeptide. b. DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product. c. reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA. d. RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene. e. a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces.
____ 19. The "shotgun" approach used by Craig Venter to sequence the human genome skipped which of the following
steps that were used by the Human Genome Project? a. physical mapping b. genetic mapping c. DNA sequencing d. A and B only e. A, B, and C
____ 20. How long does it take to develop, test and market a typical rDNA protein product?
a. It takes approximately 5-10 years to develop and market a typical rDNA protein product before it can be brought to market. b. It takes approximately 15 years to develop and market a typical rDNA protein product before it can be brought to market. c. It takes approximately 10-15 years to develop and market a typical rDNA protein product before it can be brought to market. d. It takes approximately 17 years to develop and market a typical rDNA protein product before it can be brought to market.
____ 21. The difference between an activity assay and a concentration assay is that
a. one shows only whether the compound is present while the other indicates the amount b. one shows not only whether the compound is present but also whether it is functioning while the other indicates the amount c. both show not only whether the compound is present but also whether it is functioning d. one shows whether it is functioning while the other indicates the amount
a. an enzyme that functions to break down the lipid amylose (plant starch) to the di-fatty acid maltose. b. an enzyme that functions to break down the the protein amylose (plant protein) to the dipolypeptide maltose. c. an enzyme that functions to break down the polysaccharide amylose (planr starch) to the disaccharide maltose. d. an enzyme that functions to break down the the monosaccharide amylose (plant starch) to the saccharide maltose.
____ 23. Genomics includes the study of all of the following except
a. identifying the location of all of the genes present in the genome. b. studying the coordinated expression of groups of genes under various conditions or in different cell types. c. identifying the functions of all of the genes in the genome. d. comparing genomes between different organisms. e. studying how the genome is duplicated and segregated within the cell cycle.
____ 24. Probes are short, single-stranded DNA or RNA segments that are used to identify DNA fragments with a
particular sequence. In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done? a. The fragments must be treated with heat or chemicals to separate the strands of the double helix. b. The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis. c. The probe must be hybridized with the fragment. d. Only A and B are correct. e. A, B, and C are correct.
____ 25. The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs instead of plasmids for
cloning genes is that a. only one copy of a plasmid can be present in any given cell, whereas many copies of a YAC or BAC can coexist in a single cell. b. YACs and BACs can be used to express proteins encoded by inserted genes, but plasmids cannot. c. plasmids are unable to replicate in cells. d. YACs and BACs can carry much larger DNA fragments than plasmids can. e. all of the above
____ 26. genetic engineering or transformation of mammalian cell lines
____ 27. an enzyme that weakens plant cell walls by degrading cellulose
____ 28. the form of a product, as in a tablet, powder, injectable liquid etc.
____ 29. a cell in which the cell wall has been degraded and is surrounded by only a membrane
____ 30. an enzyme that weakens plant cell walls by degrading pectin
____ 31. Experiment designed to show how a drug is metaboloized (processed) in the body
____ 32. Experiment designed to determine the conditions that affect the shelf life of a drug
____ 33. Experiment designed to determine the relative strength of a drug for the purpose of determining proper dosage
____ 34. Experiment designed to show the biochemical effect of a drug on the body
____ 35. Experiment designed to find what quantities of a drug are lethal to cells, tissues and model organisms
____ 36. Products developed from plants that exhibit or are thought to exhibit some medicinal property
____ 37. an organism produced by genetic engineering
____ 38. a substance that kills or slows the growth of one or more microorganisms
____ 40. antimicrobial solution such as alcohol or iodine that is used to clean surfaces
Essay: Answer one or the other in detail. No extra credit given for answering both questions!
41. How does PCR and Sequencing relate to one another? Explain in detail. Compare and contrast the two
processes. What is the main function of each? Why is one necessary for the other? Does the end product give you the sequence one wants? Why or why not? Diagrams required. Be as detailed as possible. Length should be Front and Back of page required.
42. What is the Human Genome Project? What was its main goal? Explain how they went about the project. What
processes were used? What did they expect? What did they actually find? What have scientists done since? Diagrams required. Answer length should be front and back of page required.
DiGeorge Syndrome (DGS) Registry Data Collection Form _ Patient Identification: Patient Name (first, middle, last)_________________________________________________________ Patient’s USIDNET Registry Number assigned after online enrollment ________ Date of Birth _____/_____/______(mm/dd/yyyy) or Year of Birth _________ Gender: male [ ], female [ ] Home Address: Date of this Rec
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